It would seem, that one of the things preventing each state from making some activity, X, subject to state syariah law ... is merely that there has at least once been a Federal law about X.
The argument roughly is, X is under criminal law, and we define that it is criminal because there is a Federal law, L, on X. But, what if there had never been the law L? The state might then have had the freedom to govern X under state syariah law.
Curious.
No comments :
Post a Comment